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| *Women health>>>HPV |
How to pinpoint HPV exposure and the subsequent warts? |
I have been monogamous in a 7+ year relationship with a woman. For the past 18 months, my girlfriend has been taking immune suppressing medication and she had her first genital wart outbreak. Her doctor diagnosed her warts as HPV related, and had them removed. Eight months later, she had a second outbreak of warts. I have never had genital warts and we never stopped having sex (with a condom) after her first outbreak. She told me that I was probably infected, and infected her. Well, after trusting for sooo long I did research. I have learned that the HPV strain that causes warts, will cause warts in both sexes. If I am infected, I have never had a wart. If she was infected before we dated, then she had a 7 year incubation period and broke out when her immune system became suppressed by medication. It does not make sense. I think she cheated during the 7 years and became infected, or she had warts before we dated. I know I am not crazy - but does not make sense. HELP! If I brought HPV into the relationship when we got together, then that would mean she would have had a 7 year incubation period. That is abnormally long. Couple this with the fact that she did not have an abnormal pap smear for the first 6 years - only until 1 year ago - with her first outbreak of warts. If I exposed her, wouldn't she have had abnormal pap smears before last year? Who is to say that you did not bring the warts into the relationship seven years ago from your past flings? Ok, so there are a couple of factors to this question. |
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