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How to pinpoint HPV exposure and the subsequent warts?


I have been monogamous in a 7+ year relationship with a woman. For the past 18 months, my girlfriend has been taking immune suppressing medication and she had her first genital wart outbreak. Her doctor diagnosed her warts as HPV related, and had them removed. Eight months later, she had a second outbreak of warts. I have never had genital warts and we never stopped having sex (with a condom) after her first outbreak. She told me that I was probably infected, and infected her. Well, after trusting for sooo long I did research. I have learned that the HPV strain that causes warts, will cause warts in both sexes. If I am infected, I have never had a wart. If she was infected before we dated, then she had a 7 year incubation period and broke out when her immune system became suppressed by medication. It does not make sense. I think she cheated during the 7 years and became infected, or she had warts before we dated. I know I am not crazy - but does not make sense. HELP!

If I brought HPV into the relationship when we got together, then that would mean she would have had a 7 year incubation period. That is abnormally long. Couple this with the fact that she did not have an abnormal pap smear for the first 6 years - only until 1 year ago - with her first outbreak of warts. If I exposed her, wouldn't she have had abnormal pap smears before last year?

Who is to say that you did not bring the warts into the relationship seven years ago from your past flings?

Ok, so there are a couple of factors to this question.

First, while certain strains of HPV are the cause of genital warts, a high percentage of people will never develop the warts regardless of the strain. Just because she developed them does not mean you ever will, nor does it mean you are not the original carrier.

Second, there is no reason to think that she cheated just because the warts broke out now - the fact that developed them while taking immune suppressing medication is directly linked to her likelihood of the virus causing an outbreak. Therefore, she may have been carrying the virus from the years before you were together, and it just showed up with this medication, or you infected her and likewise it is only now appearing.

What it comes down to is that who the original carrier may or may not be is unimportant - 50-75% of the population is estimated to be carrying at least one strain of HPV, with as many as 25% carrying those which can cause warts. Outside of the possibility of cervical cancer in women, there are no health risks posed by HPV other than the annoyance of the warts. Since condoms are only a mildly affective method of protecting against HPV (as opposed to other STDs), especially since it is still transmittable with or without warts present, theres still a good chance you were the original carrier. The only way to guess is to go off of past sexual history practices, but it doesn't tell anything for sure.
It's important for people to know that HPV and genital warts aren't something to be ashamed about. If you think she cheated based on other suspicions, then you should talk to her about it, but if this is your only reason then it holds little validity.

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